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Hi Pete,

Gàidhlig (Gaelic) is the language of the Gaels of the Western Isles and Highlands. To a Gael, speaking Erse is speaking Irish.

I will try and clarify for you from where Lowland (Laland) Scots derives, as it is a common misconception that it is a corruption (dialect) of English. It is(or I should say WAS, as it has mostly died out) a seperate language.


Laland Scots was the name for the language of lowland Scotland. It is a Germanic language, closely related to English. It developed from the northern Old English (or Old Northumbrian) that was introduced into south-east Scotland (south of the Forth) from the 7th century AD onwards, as the kingdom of Northumbria expanded northwards. It was reinforced later by northern English that had been exposed to strong Norse influence after the Norse (Danes and Norwegians) occupied what is now Yorkshire and Cumbria. It started to be more widely spoken in eastern Scotland, north of the Forth, in the 12th century; by the early 15th century it was well established as the language of the Scottish court and parliament; and by the end of the middle ages (that is by about 1500) it had superseded Gaelic in almost all the southern and eastern lowlands. It was introduced into the Northern Isles (Orkney and Shetland) in the later middle ages, and by the 18th century it had superseded the local Norse language (Norn), which, however, has left its strong mark on the Scots spoken in those islands.

Claiming Scots is an Anglo-Norse dialect because of the use of Norse root words such as bairns, burns and byres would be akin to claiming that English is a dialect of French because of words such as pupil, chapel, bank or sombre.

Anyway, I would appreciate your source for claiming Scots to be an Anglo -Norse dialect -

You really should read the whole of the thread as there has been an awful lot of ground already covered.

>phew<

that was a big post for me, so I'm of to lie down in a darkened room and listen to The Pogues ;-)

FTC

But you said " It developed from the northern Old English (or Old Northumbrian) that was introduced into south-east Scotland (south of the Forth) from the 7th century AD onwards, as the kingdom of Northumbria expanded northwards. It was reinforced later by northern English that had been exposed to strong Norse influence after the Norse (Danes and Norwegians) occupied what is now Yorkshire and Cumbria."

Doesn't that make it Anglo-Norse ie Anglian and Norse? You know far more about it than me, so I'll keep quiet now.

Yes I have read the other contributions now. Agreement on the "haugr" , but Maes is a mystery. Good to have some mysteries left to think about.

' what are these people called,those who live across the narrow sea to the north ?'
Pretannikai was how he wrote down the reply,'they bare the Pretannikai,and the island is called Pretannike'.Over the following three centuries this word changed only slightly, to be noted by Julius Caesar as Britannia.When the Romans finally organized an invasion in AD 43 and colonized southern Britannia,the name stuck through nearly 400 years of occupation,and it has stuck in various forms ever since.

Regards